Saint Paul says: "By one man's disobedience many were made/appointed sinners, so by one man's obedience many will be made/appointed righteous." (Rom 5:19). Some Protestants claim this is an important proof text for their doctrine of the Imputation of Christ's Righteousness, because here Paul speaks of believers being "appointed righteous," which they say is different fromactually being made righteous. I want to address that claim here, because it isn't as strong of an argument as they think.
Several years ago I was reading Reformed Baptist pastor John Piper's defense of Imputation of Christ's Righteousness, and I recall he had commented on this very issue in his Protestant apologetics book "Counted Righteous in Christ" (available for free on Piper's own site here). Piper explains his interpretation of Romans 5:19 on Pages 108-109, which I've trimmed down for length but kept the essential parts:
Does Christ’s one act of righteousness “result in justification of life” (Rom 5:18) because by this act we are transformed by faith into righteous people or because we are counted to be righteous at the moment we believe in Christ, when in fact we are ungodly (4:5)? The word kathistemi [in Rom 5:19] translated as “made” regularly means “appoint.” (Matt 24:45, 47; Lk 12:14; Acts 6:3; Tit 1:5) This would point to the second meaning: “through the obedience of Christ we are appointed or reckoned righteous” (Rom 5:19). This would support the imputation of righteousness to us. But the word (kathistemi) itself may carry the implication of having the qualities to which it is appointed. (Jas 4:4; 2 Peter 1:8) So the context decides.
I have tried to argue that the whole context [of Romans 5], beginning at verse 12, teaches the “imputation” of Adam’s sin to the human race so as to shed light on the meaning of justification as the imputation of Christ’s righteousness. The whole reason why Paul launched into this typology between Adam and Christ was to make the nature of justification (namely, as imputation) clear.
The condemnation following Adam’s sin was not owing to our personal transgressions, but to our connection with Adam. This is so crucial to him because all the way along in this text he wants us to see that, likewise, justification does not flow from our personal obedience but from the “one act of righteousness” (5:18) or “the obedience” of Christ (5:19). The whole context calls for the common meaning of kathistemi in verse 19, namely, “appoint.”
Piper begins by asking if the obedience of Christ mentioned in Rom 5:18-19 results in either of two options: (1) 'transform us into righteous people', or alternatively, (2) does it only 'impute/count us to be righteous even though we are ungodly'? Piper is trying to prove the second option here (Imputation), namely that we are regarded as righteous legally even though we are personally ungodly.
To prove his thesis, Piper says the Greek term "made" in Rom 5:19 most often means "appoint" in the Bible, regularly used as an accounting/regarding term rather than a make/transform term. Thus, Paul is most likely saying we are 'regarded/imputed as righteous' rather than we are 'made inwardly righteous'. This is a fair point to make, but it has its limitations. Piper immediately adds that this word can carry implications of someone having the qualities to which they are appointed, meaning that someone who is 'appointed as righteous' might actually already be inwardly righteous. If so, that would undermine Piper's thesis. So Piper (rightly) says we must use context to decide how 'appointed' is being used.
Appealing to the context, Piper argues that Romans 5:12-21 is about two representatives for all of humanity (Adam & Jesus), both acting as "heads" of the human family on behalf of everyone else, and thus isn't about our individual behavior. In other words, Piper is saying that what these men did affected everyone else, while we are just the recipients of what they caused. Thus, their actions and consequences are said to belong to us, even though we didn't personally do these things. In this way, Original Sin holds that we are regarded (imputed) as sinners because Adam sinned, even though we personally didn't do anything sinful. And since the text of Rom 5:18-19 is presented as a parallel, then logically by Christ's obedience, we will be regarded (imputed) as righteous even though we personally didn't do anything good. This is a reasonable argument and interpretation of the text, and why Piper and many Protestants stand so confident about their doctrine of Imputation. So what's the Catholic response?
First, a fallacy with Piper's opening set up is that he is trying to argue that 'appoint' is used to show we can be regarded as righteous "even though we are ungodly (Rom 4:5)," but such doesn't logically follow. If Paul's lesson is that we are regarded as righteous or sinful strictly because of the actions of Adam or Jesus done on our behalf, then our own personal godliness or sinfulness would be irrelevant to Paul's thesis. In other words, it could just as logically be said we are "appointed as sinful even if we were personally righteous," as strange as that sounds, because it doesn't matter if we are personally good or evil, only whether Adam or Jesus are good. This shows a serious coherence problem within the Reformed view of Adam/Jesus headship, because Imputation has made it so God doesn't actually care if we are personally behaving sinfully or not, since God only cares how Adam behaved on our behalf. But God clearly does care about our individual personal behavior, as Romans 1-4 (and elsewhere) certainly makes clear. So the Imputation by headship thesis is severely undermined, which I've also noted many times elsewhere (e.g. here). The very 'salvation by works' thesis Protestants hold, saying that "you can't save yourself by your own works because your works are sinful," is a completely incoherent thesis, because with the Imputation theme even if your works were perfectly righteous that wouldn't mean anything because God only looks at Adam or Jesus on your behalf! Under the Imputation paradigm, it makes no sense for Paul to ask "if Abraham was justified by his works" (Rom 4:2) because justification is strictly based on the behavior of Adam of Jesus, not Abraham's personal behavior!
Second, there is an equivocation fallacy (i.e. the same word holds different meaning) being used here by Piper and the Protestant side, which is that "Imputation" means two opposite things within the same context. On one hand, Protestants say "imputation" means something is regarded to have something that it doesn't actually have, namely someone is regarded as righteous even though they aren't righteous inwardly or by personal behavior. Yet, on the other hand, Protestants say we are "imputed" as sinful not just because of Original Sin, but also because we truly are sinful in our hearts and behavior (Rom 3:9-18). Protestants admit by the sin of Adam we were not merely 'appointed' to be sinful, but that we indeed became inwardly radically corrupted in our very being. So why would the obedience of Jesus only merely 'appoint' us to be righteous while not being made inwardly righteous? Logically, if we are appointed/imputed as sinners while also being personally sinful, then to be consistent it would suggest we are appointed/imputed as righteous because we also are personally righteous. Thus, logically speaking, the term 'appoint' should be understood to include or imply a transformation, thus 'made righteous' fits better.
Building on this last thought, Adam's sin truly caused us to become spiritually dead and inwardly sinful. The context of Rom 5 is clear about this, even using terms like "dead" and "life," which refer to inward conditions. Nobody says you are legally dead or legally alive, because that makes no sense. Thus, if by one man's sins we became spiritually dead, then logically the solution is that by one mans obedience we are made spiritually alive. It makes no sense to impute life to someone who is dead.
The New Testament uses the term "made/appoint" twenty-two times (see here), and it very consistently is used to mean someone is appointed to an office because they personally were on good behavior. Consider:
- Jesus speaks of "the
faithful and wise servant, whom his master has [appointed] over his
household" (Mat 24:45,47; Mat 25:21,23; Lk 12:42,44). Notice the person
appointed to office is actually personally holy.
- In Acts 6:3, Peter says "pick out from among you seven men of good repute, full of the Spirit and of wisdom, whom we will appoint to this duty ... 5 and they chose Stephen, a man full of faith and of the Holy Spirit, and Philip, and Prochorus, and Nicanor, and Timon, and Parmenas, and Nicolaus, a proselyte of Antioch. 6 These they set before the apostles, and they prayed and laid their hands on them." Notice the deacons are actually holy, whereas Piper only cites the last few words. And notice this took place in a sacramental context, laying on of hands to receive graces, suggesting "appoint" could be sacramental.
- Acts 7:10 has Pharaoh "appoint" Joseph as ruler, "Joseph found favor in his sight and attended him, and he made him overseer of his house and put him in charge of all that he had" (Gen 39:4)
- Paul tells Titus 1:5 to "appoint elders in every town as I directed you,"
and Paul goes on to show how elders must have good character and holy,
Titus 1:6-9. Thus, appointment corresponds to actual personal good
character.
- Heb 2:7 says that because of the Son's obedience, the Son was crowned and "set over" as king all of the world.
- James 4:4 says, "whoever
wishes to be a friend of the world makes [appoints] himself an enemy of
God," which isn't about ordaining to a higher place, but rather gets
assigned based on character.
- 2 Peter 1:8 says, "For if these virtues are yours and are increasing, they make [appoint]
you from being ineffective or unfruitful in the knowledge of our Lord
Jesus Christ," speaking on the virtues in the prior verses 2 Peter 1:5-7 that allow a man to be fruitful.
- Heb 5:1; 7:28; 8:3; are about the appointment of the high priest, which was based on being a biological descendant of Aaron (Num 3:10). It's not that they were appointed according to their behavior, but they did have to undergo sanctification rituals, and they could lose their priesthood (e.g. Num 4:19) through sinning.
So based on the Biblical usage, Piper has no reasonable lexical basis to think someone is appointed to something while being personally unworthy of it. From what I have found, the term never suggests "imputation" in any place it is used, so we shouldn't even assume "imputation" is within the range of meaning of "made". On top of that, there is no "appointing" to an office in Rom 5:19, since the only two offices are occupied by Adam and Jesus, never meant for us. There is no "appointing" in a courtroom trial, so again the translation "appoint" isn't fitting here in Rom 5 when Protestants claim Justification is understood as a legal thing. This means "appoint" must reasonably be understood more accurately as "made to be" or "shown to be," even possibly sacramental Baptism/Confirmation, since the "appointing" of clergy Biblically includes the sacramental laying on of hands. Given that "justify" most likely refers to "vindication," that is showing/demonstrating one to be righteous (see here), then that's also where I would lean for Rom 5:19. Thus, I would lean towards "appointed righteous" be likely understood as
enrolled into the "class" of righteous behaving people through Baptism. By Adam's sin, many were shown to be corrupted sinners in their behavior, and by Christ's obedience, many were shown to be regenerated righteous in their behavior. Even if a Protestant wants to claim "appoint does not mean to transform inwardly," just as they say "impute doesn't mean transform inwardly" and "justify does not mean to make righteous," these Protestants completely miss the point. It's not that those terms mean transform, but rather that these terms recognize a transformation already took place! Ironically, even the Reformed admit that 'regeneration precedes faith', meaning that prior to Justification they are transformed inwardly in order to believe, and thus aren't truly 'reckoned righteous while still being a sinner' (see here).
In conclusion, I think it is very clear that the Imputation thesis doesn't fit, and rather that the 'made/recognized' understanding fits much better. If Justification is principally about Adoption, which I think it is, then through Christ's obedience we are adopted as sons and thus demonstrate that reality. It is also possible that "many will be made righteous" has in view the Resurrection, wherein we will be ordained/constituted as glorified saints.
Ordaining the Seven Deacons (including Deacon Nick) as seen in the first deacons of Acts 6:3-5 |
13 comments:
The point about the protestant view of humanity having a head thst is the only who determines our being good or not having the consequence that we being sinful would be irrelevant is a very good one, never thought of that.
St. Paul puts so much emphasis on that that it is weird to focus only on Adam failure.
Adam’s disobedience was our disobedience. When he fell, we fell not by personally sinning but on account of our union with him. God treats Adam as our federal head. That is why, even babies who do not personally sin suffer death, which is the wages of sin. The presence of death implies the existence of sin which is sufficient to bring us to eternal damnation even if we haven’t personally sinned. Of course, being one with Adam in his disobedience will eventually lead to personal sin. But, God’s wrath upon us does not wait on our personal sin. It abides in us already because Adam’s disobedience is our disobedience.
Christ obedience will be our obedience if we are united with him by faith. This obedience which we did not perform is the sole basis of God’s acceptance of us. This does not mean that there is no change in our sinful nature when God accepts us. God does change our sinful nature in regeneration and sanctification. These are necessary actions that God performs in us as he saves us. However, the change in our nature is not the ransom nor the payment of our sin. It is not the basis of why God forgives us and accepts us as righteous. The ground or basis of God’s acceptance of us is Christ’s obedience alone in our behalf. Christ’s atonement, which we did not perform, but was performed on our behalf, is the ground of why God treats us righteous. This is what we call justification. God’s acceptance and treatment of us as righteous is not owning to the changes in our nature (although that surely will happen necessarily) but to the atonement of Christ alone.
Anonymous, you have completely missed the point of this post. You clearly understand the Reformed position, but you don't see the glaring problem that I bring up, which I don't think Reformed theology is able to address.
Under the Reformed "Headship" model, God doesn't look at your own personal righteousness, nor does God look at your own personal sinfulness. Stop and think about what that means for what Romans 1-4 teaches. If God only sees us through the works of Jesus or works of Adam, then why is Paul talking about Abraham being justified by his own works if God never looks at Abraham's works?
Abraham could be personally righteous but that would be irrelevant under Reformed Imputed Headship Theology.
You err in asserting that Protestant theology teaches that God does not look at our personal righteousness or sinfulness. Protestant confession has thoroughly condemned the idea that a change in our nature is unnecessary or inconsequential in attaining eternal life.
WCF states the following:
CHAPTER VI. OF THE FALL OF MAN, OF SIN, AND THE PUNISHMENT THEREOF
VI. Every sin, both original and actual, being a transgression of the righteous law of God, and contrary thereunto, doth, in its own nature, bring guilt upon the sinner, whereby he is bound over to the wrath of God, and curse of the law, and so made subject to death, with all miseries spiritual, temporal, and eternal.
CHAPTER XIII. OF SANCTIFICATION
I. They, who are once effectually called, and regenerated, having a new heart, and a new spirit created in them, are further sanctified, really and personally, through the virtue of Christ’s death and resurrection, (1Co 6:11; Act 20:32; Phl 3:10; Rom 6:5-6); by His Word and Spirit dwelling in them, (Jhn 17:17; Eph 5:26; 1Th 2:13): the dominion of the whole body of sin is destroyed, (Rom 6:6, 14); and the several lusts thereof are more and more weakened and mortified, (Gal 5:24; Rom 8:13); and they more and more quickened and strengthened in all saving graces, (Col 1:11; Eph 3: 16-19); to the practice of true holiness, without which no man shall see the Lord, (2Co 7:1; Hbr 12:14).
II. This sanctification is throughout, in the whole man, (1Th 5:23); yet imperfect in this life, there abiding still some remnants of corruption in every part, (1Jo 1:10 Rom 7:18, 23; Phl 3:12); whence ariseth a continual and irreconcilable war, the flesh lusting against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh, (Gal 5:17; 1Pe 2:11).
III. In which war, although the remaining corruption, for a time, may much prevail, (Rom 7:23); yet, through the continual supply of strength from the sanctifying Spirit of Christ, the regenerate part doth overcome, (Rom 6:14; 1Jo 5:4; Eph 4:15-16); and so, the saints grow in grace, (2Pe 3:18; 2Co 3:18); perfecting holiness in the fear of God, (2Co 7:1).
John Calvin wrote on the unity and distinctions of Justification an Sanctification. He has the same as the WCF where “the practice of true holiness” is necessary because “without which no one will see the Lord”. Thus, he asserts that we are “justified not without works” and that “sanctification is just as much included as righteousness”. Here:
Although we may distinguish them, Christ contains both of them inseparably in himself. Do you wish, then, to attain righteousness in Christ? You must first possess Christ; but you cannot possess him without being made partaker in his sanctification, because he cannot be divided into pieces (1 Cor. 1:13). Since, therefore, it is solely by expending himself that the Lord gives us these benefits to enjoy, he bestows both of them at the same time, the one never without the other. Thus it is clear how true it is that we are justified not without works yet not through works, since in our sharing in Christ, which justifies us, sanctification is just as much included as righteousness (Institutes, 3.16.1).
You maybe attacking a theology of some communities way after the reformation. However, the Protestant creeds and confession, piety, and writings are united in their view of the work of God in regeneration and sanctification. They are necessary works of God in our salvation, which he takes pleasure in doing that we may be blameless in Christ until he returns.
You are still missing the big contradiction in your theology. Under the concept of Federal Headship, God ONLY LOOKS AT Adam or Jesus when evaluating your (legal) righteousness standing before Himself. Thus, your Justification is 100% outside of you. That's the whole point of Imputation, that God sees only Adam when looking at you, or God sees only Jesus when looking at you, in terms of your legal standing.
For you to keep bringing up Sanctification is to completely fail to see the issue. This has nothing to do with Sanctification.
The ground of justification is wholly Christ, for those who are united with him. That is correct. But, justification is not the only divine acts in our salvation. The fact that you are treating justification as a stand alone and ultimate act in our salvation is indicative that you are not qualified to critique the Protestant framework for lack of understanding. The reformers have always taught that justification and sanctification are inseparable but distinguishable. That is why, no one in our confession talks about justification without talking about sanctification. Your insistence that I shouldn’t bring up sanctification as your defence is the big contradiction, for why shouldn’t I when your argument is that God does not look at our personal sin and holiness in Protestant theology? That is not only demonstrably wrong, it is, in fact, the very topic that Protestants laboured to address in their confessions as pointed out above.
For example John Calvin:
Although we may distinguish them, Christ contains both of them inseparably in himself. Do you wish, then, to attain righteousness in Christ? You must first possess Christ; but you cannot possess him without being made partaker in his sanctification, because he cannot be divided into pieces (1 Cor. 1:13). Since, therefore, it is solely by expending himself that the Lord gives us these benefits to enjoy, he bestows both of them at the same time, the one never without the other. Thus it is clear how true it is that we are justified not without works yet not through works, since in our sharing in Christ, which justifies us, sanctification is just as much included as righteousness (Institutes, 3.16.1).
Let's try to keep this simple:
"For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God." -Rom4.2
Paul is *explicitly* discussing "justification by works" in this context. If the ground of justification is "wholly Christ" as you say, then why is Paul asking if Abraham could be justified by his own works?
When it comes to JUSTIFICATION in the Reformed system it is only Adam or Jesus who can act in such a role since JUSTIFICATION is based on Federal Headship.
You keep on moving the goal post and gave a non-response. But, if you want to shift to an exegetical argument rather than letting the reformers explain their theology to debunk your unfounded accusation, then I’ll follow you there.
Paul explicitly discussed “justification by works” in Romans 4:2 not because Abraham was justified by works but to emphasise the impossibility of justification by works. Notice that Romans 4 is grounded by Paul’s main thesis in Romans 3:19-28. It re-emphasises and gives a concrete example from the OT of his thesis:
Romans 3:27–28 (ESV): 27 Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? By a law of works? No, but by the law of faith. 28 For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law.
Even the greatest patriarch can not boast in his justification. If he were justified by works, he would be able to boast. But, justification excludes boasting. Why so? Because, no one is justified by works. What is the principle of faith that Paul talks about? He explained the principle in 3:21-26. In this passage, Paul grounds justification in Christ’s redemptive work alone.
Paul’s contemporary interpreters of the OT and justification viewed justification as based on the works of the law needing no Saviour in our behalf. They find in the law their righteousness and they have no concept of a dying and rising Messiah who will be their righteousness. They put forward Abraham as an example. This is what they believe: “Abraham was perfect in his deeds with the Lord, and well pleasing in righteousness all the days of his life” (Jub. 23:10). “We find that Abraham our father had performed the whole law before it was given, for it is written, Because that Abraham obeyed my voice and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws [Gen 26:5]” (Kidd 4:14).
However, Paul puts forward a view that is novel at that time. He insist that no part of Abraham can boast before God even though he was an exemplar of fulfilling the works of the law and faith as his Jewish contemporaries believe. For Paul, Abraham, just like everyone else who fall short before the Law’s perfect demand is “ungodly” (4:5) and can only be declared righteous by faith in the work of Christ alone.
This concept of an intermediary, namely Christ, who stands in our place to make us right with God is vehemently opposed by his Jewish contemporaries. Paul also insist that justification can be known “now” when we have faith in Christ rather than after death. Both the Sadducees and Pharisees tradition, vehemently opposed such idea because of their belief that justification can only be given after all our works are summed up and balanced in the scale. A justification grounded in ourselves can not be gained in our lifetime. It has to be purely eschatological as it’s framework demands. Paul opposes that view as well as he grounds justification in the finished work of Christ. Justification can be known and gained in our lifetime as he points to Jesus as the propitiation of our sin. This aghast his religious contemporaries.
It seems you do not hold to the classical Reformed notion of Federal Headship, which is that everyone who has ever lived is either under Adam's headship or under Christ's headship. There are literally only two Heads. Only a Head is in a position to keep the Covenant of Works, on behalf of those under them.
Now let's substitute "justification by works" to "offer a Presidential Pardon". The only people who can offer a Presidential Pardon are presidents, and in this case only Adam or Jesus can offer a Presidential Pardon. In such a case, would it make sense to say "If Nick could offer a Presidential Pardon, he would have something to boast about"? No! Because I'm not a President.
You said that "Paul grounds justification in Christ's redemptive work alone," but this contradicts Reformed Theology because it denies Active Obedience. Redemptive work only counts for Passive Obedience, which is only to undo the effects of sin. You see, Adam did not need "redemption" in his original state, he was without sin, so what he needed was a lifetime of perfect obedience to God's Law, and this is the Reformed definition of "Justification by Works".
That's the heart of what you're missing. You bring up the "ungodly" issue but I have a few very significant articles I did (HERE)completely exposing the Protestant side for betting everything on their wrong understanding of "ungodly".
Again, your response above did not deal with the exegesis I've provided on Rom 4:2. However, you shifted your argument again wrongly accusing me that I do not understand and believe in the concept of federal headship. But, I assure you, I understand this concept very well. Secondly, your argument based on a Presidential Pardon analogy is confusing. Maybe you can tease that out better so I can respond to that confusing argumentation.
You asserted that "redemptive work" only counts for Passive Obedience. This is tremendously erroneous. Obviously, you are not familiar with the historical background of the distinction between Active and Passive Obedience of Christ. As this language is not part of the WCF, it is important in the mind of the divines and systematicians. However, most of the systematicians in the Reformed Tradition have seen that the "redemptive work" of Christ entails Passive and Active Obedience. To exclude one from the other does not represent the Reformed Tradition. Charles Hodge, one of our greatest systematicians, summarises the point:
"It has already been remarked that the distinction between the 150active and passive obedience of Christ is, in one view, unimportant. As Christ obeyed in suffering, his sufferings were as much a part of his obedience as his observance of the precepts of the law. The Scriptures do not expressly make this distinction, as they include everything that Christ did for our redemption under the term righteousness or obedience. The distinction becomes important only when it is denied that his moral obedience is any part of the righteousness for which the believer is justified, or that his whole work in making satisfaction consisted in expiation or bearing the penalty of the law. This is contrary to Scripture, and vitiates the doctrine of justification as presented in the Bible." (Systematic Theology, vol 3 Chapter 5)
Therefore, your understanding of Reformation Theology is erroneous.
Lastly, the view that "ungodly" or the greek "asebe" only refers to a "gentile" have long been debunked lexically. The greatest rebuttal of this argument is to let Paul speak for himself. In Romans 5:6, Paul used the exact word again which he used in 4:5. Clearly, Paul's usage usage is unmistakably clear that "ungodly" is the opposite of "righteous" (v. 7) and a synonym of "sinner" and "God's enemy" (v. 8, 10) and that the "ungodly" is saved from "God's wrath" which is a result of sin. The "ungodly" is the object of "reconciliation" (v. 10, 11) as can be seen here:
6 For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly. 7 (For rarely will anyone die for a righteous person, though for a good person perhaps someone might possibly dare to die.) 8 But God demonstrates his own love for us, in that while we were still sinners, Christ died for us. 9 Much more then, because we have now been declared righteous by his blood, we will be saved through him from God’s wrath. 10 For if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God through the death of his Son, how much more, since we have been reconciled, will we be saved by his life? 11 Not only this, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received this reconciliation. (Rom 5:6-11)
In all of its occurrence inside and outside of the Pauline corpus (Rom 4:5, 5:6, 1 Tim 1:9, 1 Pet 4:18, 2 Pet 2:5, 6, 3:7, Jud 1:4, 15 and the noun Rom 1:18, 11:26, 2 Tim 2:16, Titus 2:12, Jude 1:15, 18), none would refer to "gentiles" but always denote moral failings which is subject to God's judgment and wrath.
I'm not sure what more to say if you cannot understand the concept of a Federal Head ALWAYS representing you. You are either under Adam or under Jesus at every moment of your life. It is only through the behavior of the Federal Head that God sees your 'legal righteousness'. This is the only way Imputation makes sense.
When Paul speaks of "Abraham justified by works" in Rom 4.2 this is basically saying "If Abraham was justified by perfectly keeping the covenant of works, he would have something to boast about." But it never was up to Abraham to keep the Covenant of Works, because the Covenant of Works is assigned only to Federal Heads, to Adam on behalf of Abraham. Later it was Jesus on behalf of Abraham. But never was Abraham under the *personal* obligation to keep the Covenant of Works.
If Adam would have perfectly kept the Covenant of Works, then all humans would be imputed with the Righteousness of ADAM and they would all be justified on account of Adam's righteousness. Why? Because Adam is the Federal Head. It is in his hands whether we are "appointed sinners" or "appointed righteous". See WCF 7.2
I have written a lot on the Passive vs Active Obedience issue. I have even written on how a minority of the Westminster Divines held that only Passive Obedience is what Justifies. The result was the Westminster Confession was intentionally vague on this point and thus didn't use the Active/Passive language, whereas the London Baptist Confession explicitly calls out Active and Passive by name. The point of me bringing that up is because you only brought up Christ's redemption when the relevant issue was the Active Obedience in terms of perfectly keeping the Covenant of Works.
My claim that "ungodly" refers to Abraham as Gentile - literally a non-worshiper per Mosaic Law standards - is supported in several ways. Reformed scholar James Buchanan in his famous book The Doctrine of Justification quotes Early Church Father St Ambrose as saying:
"Without the works of the Law, says Ambrose, to an ungodly man, that is to say a Gentile, believing in Christ, his 'faith is imputed for righteousness,' as also it was to Abraham."
I gave several other reasons in the other linked article why "ungodly" as used in Rom 4:5 cannot take on the mainstream Reformed meaning. The term "ungodly" can refer to a sinner in general, as other texts show, but there is also certainly a 'nuanced distinction' as some of those texts show, such as "ungodly AND sinner" (1 Tim 1:9; 1 Pet 4:18), and "ungodly AND unrighteous" (Rom 1:18). So in the ancient mind, there was some distinction even if ideas overlapped. The general sense of using 'ungodly' as someone not living like a good Jew should live, is perfectly valid usage. This means Gentiles would generally fall under the "sinner" category (Gal 2:15). This is also supported by the fact the word Sebo (when negated becomes "ungodly") routinely in the New Testament refers to living in a way proper to Mosaic Law living and not some abstract/generic "godliness".
My advice to you is to lessen your pride and allow yourself to be corrected. Writing stuff like — “Abraham was [never] under *personal* obligation to keep the Covenant of Works.” — shows your lack of understanding on the subject. Since Paul used Abraham as an exemplar on his point that “all have sinned”, by implication his conclusion is that “no one will be justified by works” including Abraham. This also implies that the principles of the Covenant of Works on the reward for perfect obedience, although strictly for Adam and the probationary period settled, is on going to all his posterity. This is not to show that we can fulfil such requirement but to push us to acknowledge we can’t and that we need the second Adam, Jesus Christ. The perpetuity of the principles of the Covenant of Works is explained by Charles Hodge:
“ If Adam acted not only for himself but also for his posterity, that fact determines the question, Whether the covenant of works be still in force. In the obvious sense of the terms, to say that men are still under that covenant, is to say that they are still on probation; that the race did not fall when Adam fell. But if Adam acted as the head of the whole race, then all men stood their probation in him, and fell with him in his first transgression. The Scriptures, therefore, teach that we come into the world under condemnation. We are by nature, i.e., as we were born, the children of wrath. This fact is assumed in all the provisions of the gospel and in all the institutions of our religion. Children are required to be baptized for the remission of sin. But while the Pelagian doctrine is to be rejected, which teaches that each man comes into the world free from sin and free from condemnation, and stands his probation in his own person, it is nevertheless true that where there is no sin there is no condemnation. Hence our Lord said to the young man, “This do and thou shalt live.” And hence the Apostle in the second chapter of his Epistle to the Romans, says that God will reward every man according to his works. To those who are good, He will give eternal life; to those who are evil, indignation and wrath. This is only saying that the eternal principles of justice are still in force. If any man can present himself before the bar of God and prove that he is free from sin, either imputed or personal, either original or actual, he will not be condemned. But the fact is that the whole world lies in wickedness. Man is an apostate race. Men are all involved in the penal and natural consequences of Adam's transgression. They stood their probation in him, and do not stand each man for himself.” (Systematic Theology, Vol II, Chapter VI.6)
On the term “ungodly”, you made so much gymnastics to avoid the obvious. All usage of this term in the Pauline corpus and outside of it denotes moral failings worthy of God’s judgment and wrath. It is not a neutral word in regard to righteousness. It is not ethnically limited but applies to all who will suffer God’s wrath, whether Jew or Gentile. The sooner you let go of this glaringly and blatantly eisegetical gymnastics, the better you will be in your arguments.
Thank you for your letting me comment in your blog. It’s a good break from the usual grind. All the best in your endeavours. Signing off.
Why are you saying "although strictly for Adam and the probationary period" if somehow Abraham could be justified if Abraham personally kept the Covenant of Works? That is a contradiction on your part that I keep trying to get you to see. "Strictly for Adam" means not meant for Abraham. The fact Abraham is a sinner shows that Adam acts on behalf of all men. Charles Hodge says in your quote: "They [mankind, including Abraham] stood their probation IN HIM [Adam], and DO NOT stand EACH MAN FOR HIMSELF."
As for "ungodly," if all Paul is saying in 4:5 is that "God forgives a sinner," then that is a true and non-controversial statement. I have *never* objected to that interpretation. Nobody in the Bible ever acted surprised by the idea of repenting to having their sins forgiven. The Jews were well aware of the "sin offering" whereby God laid out the rules for sacrifices to have their sins forgiven. The Jews did not see themselves as sinless, otherwise the Day of Atonement wouldn't be a thing.
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