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Thursday, April 9, 2020

Does Philemon 1:18 support (Double) Imputation?

As I was responding to objections in the comment box on my recent Imputation (Logizomai) article, I realized a truly devastating argument that I had not noticed before. Within that article, I had documented numerous well-respected, conservative Reformed Theologians who made Philemon 1:18 a chief proof-text for Imputation. All this time, I didn't give it much thought though, because Philemon doesn't use the crucial word Logozmai. But now I realize that the better approach is to take Philemon 1:18 head on, and even embrace it!  

It all began when a Protestant accused me of misrepresenting the Protestant view of Imputation. He said I incorrectly described the Protestant view of imputation as that of transferring sin or transferring righteousness. He obviously didn't read the many Protsetant sources I quoted which used the very phrase and concept of "transferring," especially with their appeal to Philemon. You can go to the original article to verify this, but here's a quick run-down of what some big name Reformed Theologians said when "proving" the Imputation of Christ's Righteousness from the Bible, using Philemon as a chief proof-text:
  • John Owen: An illustrious instance [of imputation] we have in that passage unto Philemon...
  • Francis Turretin: Paul desires the fault of Onesimus to be imputed to him
  • James Buchanan: The debt due, and the wrong done, by Onesimus to Philemon, were not chargeable against Paul personally or previously, but he became chargeable with them simply by their being imputed to him
  • Charles Hodge: Philemon had no doubt what Paul meant when he told him to impute to him the debt of Onesimus.
  • Robert Dabney: When we attempt to prove this imputation, we are met with the assertion that there is no Scriptural warrant for this idea of transference of righteousness as to its legal consequences. We point, in reply, to Philemon 18
  • John Gill: the manner in which the righteousness of Christ is made over to a sinner, and it becomes his, is by imputing it to him . . . as when the apostle said to Philemon
  • LS Chafer: The word impute means to reckon over unto one's account, as the Apostle writing to Philemon
  • Tyndale Biblical Dictionary: Philemon 1:18, which affirms that the apostle Paul assumed the debt of Onesimus, aptly illustrates the predominant theological usage of [imputation]
  • International Standard Bible Encyclopedia: something which is not personally one's own prior to the imputation, as where Paul asks that a debt not personally his own be charged to him (Philemon 1:18)
  • William Webster: Paul illustrates this in his letter to Philemon...
Before getting into the apologetics of Philemon 1:18, we need some background. The Letter of Paul to Philemon is fascinating for a few reasons. First of all, because it is one of the shortest books of the Bible, less than one page long! Within this book, Paul also suggests that slavery isn't a good thing, especially between Christians, since Paul is writing to his disciple Philemon about his run-away slave named Onesimus. After he ran away, Onesimus met Paul in Rome and converted to Christianity, becoming a trusted helper for his "father" Paul. Now Paul is writing to kindly ask his beloved Brother in Christ, Philemon, to no longer regard Onesimus as a slave, but rather a fellow Brother in Christ as well. Paul ask that Onesimus either remain assisting Paul in Rome or else return as a hired helper friend of Philemon. Paul even says it was Providential that Onesimus ran away, because that led to his salvation. It is within this context that the Apostle says to his disciple Philemon:
8 Though I am bold enough in Christ to command you to do what is required, yet for love's sake I prefer to appeal to you. I, Paul, an old man and now a prisoner, I appeal to you for my child, Onesimus, whose father I became. I am sending him back to you, sending my very heart. I would have been glad to keep him with me, in order that he might serve me on your behalf during my imprisonment for the gospel, but I preferred to do nothing without your consent in order that your goodness might not be by compulsion. For this perhaps is why he was parted from you for a while, that you might have him back forever, no longer as a slave but as a beloved brother.

17 So if you consider me your partner, receive him as you would receive me. 18 If he has wronged you at all, or owes you anything, charge that to my account. 19 I, Paul, write this with my own hand: I will repay it, to say nothing of your owing me even your own self. 20 Yes, brother, I want some benefit from you in the Lord. Refresh my heart in Christ. 21 Confident of your obedience, I write to you, knowing that you will do even more than I say. 22 At the same time, prepare a guest room for me, for I am hoping that through your prayers I will be graciously given to you.
The Protestant claim is that in verse 17 we see the Imputation of Christ to the sinner, wherein Onesimus is seen and treated as if he were Paul. And in verse 18 we see the imputation of our sin onto Christ, wherein the guilt of Onesimus was transferred to Paul. This isn't that unreasonable of a claim, since there is an element of truth to it (we become sons of God, clothed with Christ, etc), but it actually undermines Imputation when you take a more careful look. Consider the following. 

First, the penalty for being a run-away slave was likely death, or at least some severe beating. But Paul was certainly not suggesting that Philemon put Paul to death or physically beat Paul. So by having that "wrong" end up being "charged to" Paul, we know it doesn't mean Paul took the punishment Onesimus deserved. Rather, it means Paul will somehow make it up to Philemon, likely granting him some service, and possibly financial compensation. So this is a major blow to the Protestant idea of Penal Substitution and Imputation of Sin, because it shows us a more compassionate alternative means of dealing (atoning) with another's sins.

Second of all, we see Paul strongly imply that Philemon is obliged to actually cancel the debt, since Paul reminds Philemon that he already is deeply indebted to Paul for bringing him the Gospel (v19). Paul turns it around and says he wants Philemon to drop the charges this as a favor (v20-21). And rather than being received as a slave, Paul tells Philemon to prepare a comfortable guest bed when Paul comes by to visit. Paul even says his apostolic authority can command Philemon to forgive the debt, but it's better if the debt is freely forgiven (v10). So we can see that even if on one hand Paul did take on the debt, in reality the debt was actually canceled without any injustice, out of pure grace for Paul's loving deeds. Here we see a wonderful image of Jesus atoning for our sin, not by taking the cold, calculated punishment, but by demonstrating a love by which sin should naturally simply be canceled out.

Third, the idea being expressed in 1:18 is that of a balance transfer, wherein the debt leaves the account ledger of Onesimus and is put onto the account ledger of Paul. In other words, when the "imputation" takes place, there is no longer any sin/debt on the original side. The debt is not shared between the two. This is why Protestants point to the Scapegoat and Sin Offering thinking (mistakenly) that the person's sin was removed from them and transferred to the animal to be punished in their place. You can hopefully see how problematic this logic becomes for Protestants though, because they claim Adam's sin is "imputed" to us, which would mean Adam's sin ceased residing on/with Adam, which cannot be. Similarly, it would mean that we became forgiven the moment Jesus took on our sin off of us, which must be at the very moment of His Incarnation, before even having to repent of our sins. Again, this cannot be. On the flip side, it also logically means that when Jesus imputes (gives) to us His righteousness, then Jesus no longer has righteousness. That is even more problematic of a claim. Clearly, the Protestant appeal to Philemon is a self-refuting disaster! 

So what is the Protestant side to do? Well, they need to find another proof text, one which describes things in terms of a 'shared account' or of people being categorized under the umbrella of someone superior to them, i.e., Adam or Jesus. This way Adam doesn't lose his guilt and Jesus doesn't lose His righteousness. But even that approach runs into problems, for how can Jesus take away Adam's guilt imputed onto us without taking away that guilt at its very source, and thus removing it from everyone? In other words, if God sees Adam's guilt when he looks 'at' me, the only way that guilt can be removed is if either it is removed from Adam himself, or if I cease being identified as being under Adam. But if I'm no longer under Adam, then the guilt wasn't even forgiven, it remains in existence, but has nothing to do with me. Furthermore, if this 'shared' rather than 'transferred' motif were true, it would mean when our sin is imputed to Jesus, that Jesus then becomes simultaneously legally sinful and legally righteous, which is a blatant contradiction and legal fiction. It makes no sense to say someone is simultaneously 100% a law abiding and 100% law breaking. All this is obviously problematic for the Protestant, especially Reformed, understanding of Salvation. 
As a kicker, I'd even suggest that transferring money into an account sounds a lot more like the Catholic view of infusion than it does Protestant Imputation, so we shouldn't even be granting the Protestant assumption that this is imputation in the first place. 

To wrap this up, I'm just astonished at the turn of events. What the great Reformed minds thought to be a solid case proved to be a complete flop, and more accurately a self-refutation of Imputation. I will definitely be keeping this in my bag of tricks for the future, especially because a casual Google search shows many Protestants out there have been appealing to Philemon, despite the fact it remains a relatively unknown proof-text outside of nerdy circles. Speaking of nerdy, there needs to be more Christians named Philemon. St Philemon, pray for us!

8 comments:

Michael Taylor said...

Nick,

It's dishonest to misrepresent people. I never said imputation doesn't imply "transfer." I asked you to define "transfer" and to interact further with your sources to see if they're using "transfer" in the same way you are.

As I said (several times) before, if transfer means that the account of the creditor decreases when transferring credit to another, then transfer--in that sense--isn't the right word, because then Adam would lose his guilt when it gets imputed to his progeny and Christ would lose his righteousness when it gets imputed to his followers.

So whatever exactly "transfer" means, it doesn't mean that because no one who affirms imputation believes that Adam becomes less guilty and Christ, less righteous.

What, then, do Protestants mean when they use the word "transfer" to describe imputation?

They mean that Adam's guilt is transferred to us without Adam himself losing any of his own guilt. They mean Jesus' righteousness is transferred to us, without Jesus himself losing any of his own righteousness. So in the first and the third imputation, "transfer" may not be the best word.

But in the second imputation--our guilt to Christ--it does seem like the right word. Because our guilt does decrease (it is removed) when Christ bears it away, and Christ himself actually is made to be sin--not per se, but per accidens--and so in that qualified sense--Christ, sinless in himself, becomes more sinful as he is made sin on our behalf.

Philemon 1:18 would be an example of what is involved in the Second Imputation: Philemon's debt goes down, while Paul's debt goes up, because Philemon's debt is transferred to Paul.

So to recap:

Adam's guilt is imputed to us--not by a debt transfer--but by our corporate solidarity with him, because his disobedience is our disobedience insofar as we are "in Adam" (1 Cor. 15:22).

But our debt is transferred to Christ in the second imputation.

Finally, Christ's righteousness is imputed to us if we are found "in him."





Michael Taylor said...

Nick,

This, I think, is proof that you are only interested in misrepresentation:

>>In other words, if God sees Adam's guilt when he looks 'at' me, the only way that guilt can be removed is if either it is removed from Adam himself, or if I cease being identified as being under Adam.<<

That's simply *not* what Protestants believe. That's not our claim. We say he looks at us, "in Adam." That's the very language of scripture. It says "in Adam" we all die. As our federal head or corporate representative, God can and does consider all of humanity when he considers Adam. So it's not that he looks at me and sees Adam; rather when he looked at Adam after his disobedience, he saw me and you and every human being that has ever lived or ever will.

In the language of Hebrews 7:10, we were all "in the loins" of Adam when Adam sinned, and therefore God saw all of us "in Adam" in whom we all die.

The only remedy to this is to be seen "in Christ," in whom we become his spiritual descendants (Rom. 9:8; Gal 4:21-31).

So as you say, if you "cease to be identified" as being under Adam, you will avoid spiritual death (for the only other choice is to be under Christ).

So long as you are still "in Adam" then his guilt (physical and spiritual death) is imputed to you. But if/when you are found "in Christ" then your sin "in Adam" is no longer imputed to you (cf, Romans 4:8); rather Christ's righteousness is imputed to you (Phil 3:9; 2 For 5:21).





Michael Taylor said...

Nick,

You said>>As a kicker, I'd even suggest that transferring money into an account sounds a lot more like the Catholic view of infusion than it does Protestant Imputation, so we shouldn't even be granting the Protestant assumption that this is imputation in the first place.<<

In the financial world, the concept of a "cash infusion" is a commonplace. But more often, we see things like the "imputation" of interest. Both infusion and imputation can be used in a financial context.

That said, Philemon's use of "ellegeo" isn't at all comparable to "infusion," or else Paul would be saying, "If Onesimus owes you anything, *infuse* it into my account." Most translations go with "charge" it to my account, which is far closer to the financial-technical use of "impute" in the English language.

What should not be granted--in the first place--is the Catholic understanding of grace as a metaphysical substance, which led to the misunderstanding that grace is something that can be "infused" into the soul. "Righteousness," in any case, isn't conceived of as a metaphysical substance by any Biblical author and so it is far closer to the Biblical world view to think of it as a legal status that someone has by imputation rather than an ontological change in the quality of the soul, as was assumed to be the case when Rome misdefined righteousness over and against the Reformers.

Michael Taylor said...

Nick,

You said this: >>The Protestant claim is that in verse 17 we see the Imputation of Christ to the sinner, wherein Onesimus is seen and treated as if he were Paul. And in verse 18 we see the imputation of our sin onto Christ, wherein the guilt of Onesimus was transferred to Paul.<<

I'm not sure that's what any Protestant is saying. I've never seen anyone say that verse 17, "receive him as you would receive me" exemplifies the imputation of Christ's righteousness to the sinner, but if you have, I'll take your word for it. It's just not an argument I'm aware of.

At most, it would be an illustration of how imputation occurs when we consider one thing to be as if it were another. This kind of "as if" thinking happens all the time. "Mi casa es su casa" would be "imputation" if we were to press this further. That's what hospitality is. It's an invitation to make someone feel "as if" they were at home. Is that "imputation?"

Hmmmm. Maybe. But I think of it more like this. If a sheriff deputizes a deputy, his legal authority is imputed to the deputy. It isn't "transferred" in way that causes the sheriff to lose his authority. So perhaps the word "confer" rather than "transfer" is a better understanding of the first and third "imputation."

First Imputation: Adam's guilt is conferred to us as we are "in Adam."
Second Imputation: Our guilt is transferred to Christ crucified.
Third Imputation: Christ's righteousness is conferred to us when we are "in Christ."

I think that avoids the issues with "transfer" which implies that party A loses some or all of what is transferred to party B, which only happens in the second imputation since all our guilt leaves us and goes to Christ who atones for it in our place.

Perhaps that's what those Reformed thinkers were thinking of in Philemon 1:18--that Paul assumes Onesimus' monetary debt (so O's debt is transferred to P) in the same way Christ assumes our sin debt (so our debt is transferred to Christ), who then pays it off.

In any case, I don't think anyone is looking to Philemon 1:18 as anything more than an illustration of a single (one-direction) imputation--not a double imputation, as your article alleges.




Nick said...

Michael, it is kind of unfair for you to accuse me of misrepresenting, especially willfully, when your own response in these last few posts seems to suggest there is actually a different kind of Imputation going on between the 1st/3rd and 2nd.

In fact, to say there is a different kind of Imputation would thrown a wrench into things like Perspicuity and exegesis, because then how are you going to read a text like 2Cor521 and Rom 4:6-8, which are speaking of BOTH the 2nd and 3rd Imputations, which you say are different meanings of Impute?

For our sake He who knew no sin had our sins removed from us and transferred entirely to Him, so that we might have His righteousness shared between Him and us.

Michael Taylor said...

Nick,

It's not unfair to call you out for your blatant misrepresentation of me and the Reformed position. You've done both several times.

It is not misrepresentation on my part to make distinctions within the doctrine of imputation, when those are the very distinctions that are discussed within the Reformed tradition. You're the one putting our ideas into a straightjacket of your own making--as if there were one and only one possible way to understand imputation, when even the dictionary itself has multiple definitions of the word.

The bottom line is this. You have not offered any positive account for what every tradition needs to explain:

1. The connection between Adam's sin and us. We take note of 1 Corinthians 15:22 which says we all die "in Adam." This is the first imputation. Death is not just a natural consequence for sin; it is a judicial penalty that God imposes on Adam and his progeny. It is that penal aspect of Adam's sin that is *confered* on all his progeny. One aspect (not the only) of that penalty is the legal guilt that is imputed to all those who are "in Adam." Even Christ himself was subject to this penalty as one of Adam's progeny (cf, Luke 3:38), which made him liable to death even though he himself committed no actual sin. The first imputation is singular in that it moves in one direction. It is a con-ference of guilt, not a trans-ference of guilt.

2. The connection between our sin and the cross. We take note of 2 Cor. 5:21 which says the sinless one was "made sin" on our behalf. This is the second imputation, which is a trans-ference of guilt for those for whom Christ dies. This too moves in one direction--from us to Christ.

3. The connection between Christ's righteousness and us. We take note of passages such as 2 Cor. 5:21--"so that we might become the righteousness of God" and Philippians 3:9, "...not having a righteousness of my own based on the law, but one that comes through faith in Christ-- faith that is from God." This is the third imputation, which is a con-ference (not a trans-ference) of an alien righteousness upon God's elect. This too moves in one direction, from Christ to us.

continued...

Michael Taylor said...

Imputation has never been understood by us in the way you present it, for no one on our side is saying in the first place that Adam becomes less guilty when his sin is imputed to his physical progeny nor that Christ becomes less righteous when his righteousness is imputed to his spiritual progeny. You keep wanting to argue that anyone who holds to imputation must accept this as a logical consequence of holding to imputation. That would be true if imputation always implies transference rather than conference. But it doesn't.

A sheriff who imputes legal authority to a deputy does not lose his own legal authority. So imputation in this case is conference, not transference. We speak of the imputation of authority all the time.

But a debtor whose debt has been imputed with interest does lose money to the bank from which he has borrowed. In this case imputation is transference, not conference. We speak of the imputation of interest all the time.

That is why we can say the imputation of Adam's guilt is a conference of guilt, whereas the imputation of our guilt to Christ is a transference.

That may sound like an equivocation of the word "impute," but it is not. Imputation--as a word--has more than one definition. But it is a bad methodology in the first place that assumes that a theological concept only begins when a univocal understanding of a vocabulary word emerges. That's never been the case in the history of theology; rather theological concepts, like threads, more often pre-exist our theological definitions which only later attempt to pull various threads together and then to articulate those threads as best we can, given the limitations of human language in expressing divine mysteries. Imputation--as a theological category--is very much a tapestry woven from many threads and gives us at best an adequate, but not exhaustive vocabulary for describing the three points above.

Nick said...

Philemon 1:14 as found in the Reformed mainstream translation NASB:

"I did not want to do anything without your consent, so that your goodness would not be, in effect, by compulsion, but of your own free will."