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Friday, December 14, 2018

"Not all who are of Israel are Israel!" - A further look at Romans 9

This post builds on a recent post I did, Romans 9 like you've never heard it before

Thinking about Romans 9 some more, it seems there's one further detail that ties things together even more: Within the famous Patriarchal trifecta of "Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob," it seems in this passage that Paul only gave examples of the sons of Abraham (9:7-9) and Isaac (9:10-13), but Paul did not seem to mention the sons of Jacob. Or did he? Actually, it seems Paul does mention Jacob, but we probably missed it. 

In the famous (and slightly mysterious) thesis verse of Romans 9:6, Paul says: "But it is not as though the word of God has failed. For not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel." The standard interpretation of this second sentence is that not all who are biologically Jews belong to "Spiritual Israel". And that makes sense. Calvinists go one step further, and in an erroneous way, and interpret this as basically saying there is a "visible church" and an "invisible church," such that you can be a member of the "visible church" but not actually saved. In this post, I want to consider what I think is a more satisfying interpretation of 9:6.

We are so far removed from Paul's original context that we often forget that terms like "Hebrew" and "Israelite" and "Jew" are not synonymous. They often overlap though, such that you could often use one of the terms to refer to the same thing. But they still are distinct terms (note how Paul distinguishes all three in Phil 3:5). The term "Hebrew" refers to a geographic region, what we call "the Holy Land". The term "Jew" refers to someone of the Tribe of Judah, with a later expanded meaning to refer to being a member of the the Kingdom of Judah. The term "Israelite" means a child of Israel. Who is Israel? Israel is the name which God gave the Patriarch Jacob, changing his name to Israel (Gen 32:28). And since Jacob-Israel had twelve sons, who each became patriarchs of their own clans, this is where we get the reference "Twelve Tribes of Israel (Jacob)". From this we can see that someone from the Tribe of Reuben would be an Israelite, but he would not be  a Jew (since those are only of the Tribe of Judah). So the distinctions can sometimes be crucial for proper precision in your theology. 

Given this distinction, it is more likely that in Romans 9:6 that Paul is saying something along the lines of: Not all twelve sons of Jacob are Israelites today. How come? Because most of these Tribes fell away into sin and were completely wiped out by the Babylonian exile a few centuries before Jesus came. This is where the phrase "Ten Lost Tribes of Israel" comes from. This is why when we see the term "Israel" in the New Testament, it typically does refers only to the faithful Kingdom of Judah (which included scattered members of the Tribes of Benjamin and Levi). Thus, Paul is saying not all who were originally Jacob's lineage are still of Jacob's lineage (i.e. Israel as we now know it). And just like the other examples, Paul does not have in mind predestination to heaven or hell, or "unconditional election". Such ideas really aren't what Paul has in mind in Romans 9, as I've noted in various other posts (e.g. HERE).  

That's all great, but how does this fit with the "firstborn losing their status through sin" theme that was covered in the last post with Abraham and Issac? It turns out that this theme continued with Jacob-Israel as well: 
1 Chronicles 5:1 The following are the sons of Reuben, the firstborn of Israel [Jacob] - for Reuben was the firstborn, but because he defiled his father's bed, his birthright was given to the sons of Joseph the son of Israel [Jacob], so that Reuben could not be enrolled as the oldest son; though Judah became strong among his brothers and a chief came from him, yet the birthright belonged to Joseph.
This passage is talking about the incident in Genesis 35:22, when Jacob-Israel was out of town and his firstborn son Reuben tried to steal family power by sleeping with his 'aunt' (so as to produce children which would have inheritance rights under him, cf Gen 9:22-25 with Ham). When giving the family blessing to each of the twelve sons, Jacob-Israel says: "Reuben, you are my firstborn, but you shall not have preeminence, because you went up to your father's bed and defiled it" (Gen 49:3-4). Instead, Joseph was given the first born status, which is why Genesis focuses so heavily on Joseph in the latter 1/3 of Genesis (e.g. coat of many colors, sold into slavery, Prince of Egypt, saves his family). In fact, it is thought that the 'coat of many colors' which Jacob-Israel gave to Joseph was not merely some bizzare rainbow jacket, but rather an ornate liturgical priestly vestment.

So what we have now is a more fully complete thought of Paul, namely that just because you're a biological descendant of Abraham, or a biological descendant of Isaac, or (as we see in this post) even a biological descendant of Israel (Jacob), does not automatically mean God's promises to "Abraham's children" apply to you. It seems that while losing firstborn status is a great tragedy in these three examples, there are a few more noteworthy examples in Genesis where such a tragic loss took place (e.g. Gen 38:7; Gen 38:27-30; Gen 48:13-20). Paul's lesson is that relying on biological firstborn status is not something you can bank on, especially if you're acting sinfully. Which reminds me, when Paul mentions the ten plagues that God sent upon Egypt, I think it is meant to irk us as to why God gave Egypt so many chances to repent. If you think about it, that's a lot of chances compared to other folks. I think Paul is trying to say that God has been exceedingly patient with the Jews, but there comes a point of 'no more chances'.

7 comments:

Anonymous said...

Nick,

I just discovered your commentary here and have been absorbing it over the last few days. I want to commend you on some really nice apologetic work that you've done here- I plan to follow this blog and I hope you continue posting regularly. Pax!

Daniel said...

Interesting points thanks for your time doing this.

Pine-Sol said...

Nick,

https://www.dafk.net/what/

Nick said...

Here is a series of comments I've made elsewhere that I'm just going to post here for now:

Here is a series of Romans 9 posts that I've done in the past. I'm sure I've forgotten some of them.
Regarding Romans 9, I do not see any random/unconditional selection theme going on. In the examples Paul gives, there is a clear distinction between sinful individuals being rejected by God and good individuals being praised by God. If Unconditional were really the theme, we should see a true mixture of Pharaoh/Jezebel types being elected to salvation while good folks like Moses types being damned. (It's interesting Paul doesn't actually speak of heaven, hell, or really much of salvation in Romans 9.) Instead, there is a clear theme of "firstborn son losing their status by sinning" in each of Paul's examples (and throughout Genesis).
First Paul brings up Issac, whom Ishmael lost his firstborn status to by mocking Issac for being second born (Gen 21:9-10; cf Paul says Ishmael "persecuted" Isaac, Gal 4:29-31). Second, Paul brings up Esau who lost his firstborn status by shamefully selling his birthright (Gn 27:26-30; Heb 12:16). Interestingly, Esau never "served" Jacob directly, only in the future corporately as nations (1Chron 18:13 under David), when God made the prophecy of "two nations are in your womb" (Gn 25:23-24) when "before they were born" the infants were "wrestling within her womb" for firstborn dominance (Gen 25:22). Paul's third example is (9:6) "not all who are descended from Jacob belong to Israel," in which we see the firstborn Reuben losing his firstborn status by fornication (1 Chron 5:1) and later 10 of 12 Tribes falling away. Pharaoh (representing Egypt) was understood to be the firstborn among nations in the world, but obviously repeatedly sinned by persecuting God's "firstborn son, Israel" (Ex 4:22-23), hence the striking down of the firstborn at Passover. And when God says to Moses "I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy," this was not a random act of mercy, but rather is found in Exodus 33, right after the Golden Calf when firstborn Aaron (and firstborn Israel as a whole) sinned with idolatry and had to have second born Moses intercede for them for 40 days fasting (Deut 9:18-21). God absolutely did not randomly show Moses mercy, for Moses was always faithful to God, and God did punish the Israelites with 3 different punishments (based on level of guilt) in Exodus 32.
With this clear theme in Romans 9, not having to break it into individual verses while ignoring context, we see Paul laying the foundation for a startling conclusion: just as all these firstborn had sinned and lost their status, even after being given multiple chances, so now the Jews are on the chopping block for punishment for rejecting their Messiah, opening the door for the second born (i.e. second class) Gentiles to become "God's chosen people," which is why the second half of Romans 9 focuses exclusively on the Gentile-Jew dichotomy, hence why Paul brings up the prooftext of Hosea which says "those who were not my people [the Gentiles] I will call ‘my people'."

Nick said...

In Romans 9:10ff, Paul says: "And also when Rebekah had conceived children, though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls—she was told, “The older will serve the younger.”"
When people see "though they were not yet born" many take it to mean "before they even existed," but I don't think that's exegetically warranted. Here, Paul says this was said "when Rebekah conceived," so the children were in utero, and the OT quote Paul references says:
/////Gen 25:21ff Isaac prayed for his wife, because she was barren, and Rebekah *conceived*. The children struggled together *within* her. So she went to inquire of the Lord. And the Lord said, “Two nations *are* in your womb, and two peoples from within you shall be divided; the one shall be stronger than the other, the older shall serve the younger.”/////
Given that the children are alive already indicates that God electing from eternity past isn't in view. The struggling within the womb indicates there was a power struggle for dominance, with the firstborn being the victor. Hence "the older will serve the younger" fits here precisely because God was going to chose the weaker brother, contrary to human convention and expectation. This fits with Paul's theme of the Jews seeing themselves as firstborn superiors to the Gentiles. God's lesson is to show that just because you're second class by worldly standards does not mean you're second class by salvation standards.
Thus, the "before they had done anything good or bad" means before we actually saw how their lives played out, God explained that the weaker would triumph. The point isn't that God chose one over the other without regards to merits.

Nick said...

//Romans 9:10 but also when Rebekah had conceived children, 11 though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls— 12 she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” . . . 16 So then it depends not on him who wills or runs but on God, who has mercy.//
I was looking at the 'traditional' Rabbinical interpretation of Genesis 25:22 where it says Jacob and Esau "struggled" in the womb. Apparently, this Hebrew word could have some nuance to it, as the Jewish Sages say it is to be understood as "running," which is fascinating because Paul says in Rom 9:16 that it is "not who runs". The idea seems to mean that Jacob and Esau were in the womb competing to be the firstborn, with there being the most athletic one winning the race and coming out of the womb first (as Genesis tells us, Esau was a very masculine athletic hunter, while Jacob was a vegetarian who stayed home on the couch). The alternative is that the Hebrew word is elsewhere consistently translated in harsh terms for severe oppression, in which case it would mean Esau was oppressing Jacob, which would fit a theme of Egyptian oppression. Perhaps the true meaning is somewhat in between both of these?
The LXX uses the Greek term "leap" or "skip" for struggling, used elsewhere in the LXX for lambs "skipping" in the mountains, and the same term used in Luke 1 when John the Baptist "leapt" in the womb.

Nick said...

In Romans 9:13 it says "Jacob have I loved but Esau have I hated," which is actually a Hebrew idiom for "loves one more than the other," but not actual hate. If I said "pepperoni pizza have I loved but cheese pizza have I hated," that doesn't mean I hate plain cheese pizza, it just means I like it less than pepperoni pizza. In the text of Genesis, we see Jacob loved Rachel "more than" Leah, which is equivalent to saying she was "hated". But Jacob didn't despise-hate Leah. And in Deuteronomy, it is clear that one wife is loved more than the other, for there's no reason to marry or stay with a woman you despise. So knowing idiom and such is an essential part of proper exegesis.
We even see this idiom when Jesus says: "If anyone comes to me and does not *hate* his father and mother and wife and children, he cannot be my disciple" in Lk14:26, while the same teaching in Matt10:37 says "Whoever loves father or mother *more than* me is not worthy of me, and whoever loves son or daughter *more than* me is not worthy of me."